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What
Does Scripture Say and Not Say About Homosexuality, and About the Loves
and Relationships of Gay Men and Women?
adapted (with minor variations) from
Rev. Donn Crail, Director
THE
LAZARUS PROJECT
7350 Sunset Blvd.
February, 1998
Actually, the Bible says nothing specifically about homosexuality because
neither that term, nor the concept, existed when biblical literature was written
down. There are very few references in the Bible to sexual acts between men, and
only one reference to sexual acts between women.
This paper
is intended only as a summary
of more extensive treatments of those few passages that make some direct
reference to sexual acts between persons of the same gender. Because of how
these passages are sometimes used in discussions regarding scripture and
homosexuality let us be clear that the focus of our concern here is what the
Bible says about persons who have a homosexual orientation and/or about their
sexual practice within committed relationships. A passage of scripture that is
about one thing should not be imposed on a discussion that is about something
quite different. In this context, we are not discussing sexual infidelity,
promiscuity, rape, or prostitution as cultic religious practice. We are against
all those things not only for scriptural reasons, but also because a reasoned
moral stance itself would compel us to be against them.
There are
six statements in the entire Bible Hebrew and Christian Scriptures (Old and
New Testaments), that may refer to homosexual acts. In some instances it is not
altogether clear exactly what they refer to. Most of these are only a verse or
two, or merely a phrase within a single verse. The six passages have been dealt
with extensively by many Biblical scholars, on both sides of the theological
aisle. One thing that should be admitted by all is that these six passages
are a microscopic portion of Scripture, and that none of them is a treatment of
homosexuality per se, but is mentioned
in a broader context, such as the Holiness Code of Leviticus, or within the
development of Pauls discussion of sin in relation to justification by grace.
Even among
Biblical scholars questions of translation and interpretation are difficult and
often there is no clear consensus regarding interpretation. Though some passages
are translated using the word(s) homosexual, or homosexual acts,
they do not refer to homosexuality as we understand it today, having to do with
a sexual orientation. There is no exact equivalent of the term homosexual
in Biblical Hebrew or Greek. The assumption of those who wrote the passages
being referred to seems to have been that they were acts committed by
heterosexual persons. None of the passages is about loving, committed
relationships between persons who happen to be of the same gender.
Of the six
passages three are from the Hebrew Scriptures, and three from the Christian
Scriptures. Of those from the Hebrew Scriptures the two, other than the
In
summary: of six passages, except for Genesis
19, there is one Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) source with two references,
and one Christian Scripture (New
Testament) source with three references.
[In the following
citations, everything the Bible (RSV) says about sexual activity between two
persons of the same sex is italicized, the context is in regular type.]
The two
angels came to
You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it
is an abomination.
Leviticus
20:13
If a man lies with a male as
with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to
death, their blood is upon them.
1
Corinthians 6:9
Do you not
know that the unrighteous will not inherit the
1
Timothy 1:10
Now
we know that the law is good. If
anyone uses it lawfully, understanding this, that the law is not laid down for
the just but for the lawless and disobedient
for the ungodly
and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers
of mothers, for man slayers, immoral
persons, sodomites, kidnapers,
liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine . . .
Romans
1:18-27
For
the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and wickedness
of men who by their wickedness suppress the truth.
For what can be known about God is plain to them,
because God has shown it to them . . . for although they knew God they did not
honor him as God or give thanks to him, but they became futile in their thinking
and their senseless minds were darkened. Claiming to be wise, they became fools,
and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for it . . . therefore
God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonoring of
their bodies among themselves, because they exchanged the truth about God for a
lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is
blessed forever! Amen. For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable
passions. Their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural, and the men
likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for
one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in their own
persons the due penalty of their error.
And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a
base mind and to improper conduct.
THE SIN OF SODOM - Genesis 19:
Why this story does not apply.
The Story
of Sodom has a significant place in scripture being referred to in several other
books of the Bible, and seeming to have been a very well known story among the
Jews. What was the grievous sin of the men of
For a
contemporary understanding one can see in this story a situation not altogether
foreign to a racial or ethnic minority living in an urban neighborhood today. It
is an incident of rioting, where
This
threat comes from men who even
So what is
the sin of
The story
of
THE HOLINESS CODE Lev. 18:22, and
Today if
you travel to other countries, or even explore much of this one, you should
discover how easily we assume that our own cultural orientation is the universal
norm, and how inclined we are to assume that they are basically just like
us when in fact the differences are far deeper than we imagine. We often
pick up and read Scripture like naive travelers assuming that the people and
cultures we are reading about can be understood as though their culture was like
our own, and that things written, or events that happen, can be understood as
though they were written, or happened, in the western world of the 20th Century.
When we
read the very concise and sharp words against male homosexual practice in Leviticus,
we are likely to assume that those prohibitions arise from the same set of
feelings and value system we have today. But they most certainly do not. What
1
Corinthians 6:9 and I Timothy 1:10: To whom, and to what, do these verses refer?
Do not be deceived,
neither . . . nor sexual perverts will inherit the
... the law is not
laid down for the just but for . . . immoral persons, sodomites... 1
Timothy
The
meaning of these verses is dependent upon a correct interpretation of two Greek
words, malakoi and arsenokoitai,
the translation of which is difficult, and there is no consensus among
scholars or biblical translators as to their meaning. There were far more common
terms for sexual relations between two persons of the same sex at the time that
Paul wrote these letters. The question then for translators is:
Why did Paul not use common terms rather than these relatively obscure
words (which could have other meanings), if he were referring specifically to
homosexual practice? Though some scholars have translated them with a single
term such as homosexuals; sodomites; sexual perverts, or
homosexual perverts, these are interpretative translations which are not
by any means the only translations possible. The early Greek fathers of the
Church, such as St. John Chrysostorn, saw no reference to homosexual practice in
the 1 Corinthians passage.
For the
Church to base any of its condemnation of homosexuals or homosexuality on these
two passages is dangerous indeed given the uncertainty that surrounds the
meaning of these Greek words.
Romans
1:18-27: The most relevant,
and difficult text.
The single
passage that is probably most relied on by those who believe that homosexuality
is condemned in Scripture is Romans
1:18-27. Romans has a
particularly significant role in the history of Christianity because it is the
source of perhaps the most foundational doctrine of the Christian faith,
justification by grace through faith in Jesus Christ as Lord. Paul begins his
development of that doctrine in the first chapter by identifying the universal
sinful state of humankind. He argues that this sin is universal because even
those who have not heard the explicit revelation in Jesus Christ, have an
implicit revelation in nature in creation. Therefore people have not
accidentally, but willfully, turned away from the creator. As a result, Paul
says, God has given them over . . . to various consequences; among these
are same sex perversions (perversion meaning to act against ones true nature).
Here, in the Letter to the Romans, can
be found the only place in Scripture which mentions women as well as men being
involved in same sex relations. Paul presents these same sex relations not as
sin itself but as the consequence of sin, the sin being to turn away from God.
It is no doubt a powerful illustration for these readers in that homosexual
practice was common and accepted in Greek and Roman culture, and was part of
their religious practice.
Romans
is about universal sinfulness, it is not a treatise on homosexuality. And to be
sure he is not misunderstood Paul follows his statement about same sex relations
with an emphatic warning not to use his words here as grounds for judging
others. Judge not, that you be not judged Paul says to alert those who
read this letter not to do the very thing that much of the Church is now doing:
Taking his illustration and using it to condemn others while failing to
understand his point that sin is universal and applies to every reader. The last
thing that Romans is intended for is as ammunition for one Christian to use
against another.
If in the
individual being homosexual were the result of turning away from God, then it
would follow that there would be a direct correlation between unbelief and
homosexuality, or conversely, that a true believer would not be given over
to that inclination. But that correlation clearly does not exist. Does Paul mean
then that as a result of humankinds universal sinful state certain things
have entered into the human condition, among them what today we would call
homosexuality? If homosexual practice is a consequence that has fallen on
humankind as a result of the Fall then it comes in the same category as labor in
childbirth, or farming for a living, neither of which we would regard as evil
today. Genesis 3:16-19
SHOULD CULTURAL FACTORS EFFECT HOW WE UNDERSTAND THESE SCRIPTURAL PASSAGES?
From our
own cultural perspective we tend to approach Scripture assuming its meaning is
related to our own ideas about human sexuality. Therefore in a culture where sexual relationships are viewed in a
psychological rather than a sociological context we are very apt to
misunderstand the meaning of these admonitions and condemnations.
An
illustration of the problem of trying to transpose meaning from one culture to
another is that we tend to read and understand the prohibitions against
adultery as we would understand them in our own culture: the psychological
injury of unfaithfulness. But that is not the violation generally referred
to in Scripture. Adultery, especially in the Hebrew Scriptures, is the violation
of male property rights, women being thought then to be the property of men.
This is evident in the story of David and Bathsheba. When Nathan charges David
with adultery, the charge clearly is not about Davids unfaithfulness to
his own wives, but a sin against Uriah for having used his property, especially
when a child or heir might be conceived, which is what occurred.
When we
read scriptural accounts related to sexuality, especially in the Hebrew
Scriptures, there are cultural realities we must bear in mind:
1.
It was a closed society and a tribal culture. Ethnic purity was primary, and
depended on absolute control of procreation.
2.
There was no allowable birth control except for abstinence. Withdrawal was a sin
punishable by death because wasted seed was to reject the imperative of
providing heirs (see the sin of Onan in Gen.
38:8-10).
3.
The origin of life was believed to be present in the male seed. They had
no concept of female seed. The woman was an incubator for birth.
4.
If early withdrawal was punishable by death, certainly a sexual relationship
between two men called for an equal punishment because it was
non-procreative (wasted seed. It was also considered an
abomination because in such an act a man was treating another man as a
woman, and the other man (presumably) was choosing to be in the role of a woman.
In their human hierarchy, where women were the property of men, such an act was
one of supreme self-degradation that shamed all males.
5.
Menstruation, and male emissions, even wet dreams, made those persons
unclean until they were ritually cleansed. In a world without knowledge of
the nature of disease, and prone to epidemic, especially when nomadic as in the
Exodus, they did what they could in the way of preventive health care.
There was an elaborate system of law governing what was clean and
unclean. A distinction between these in the biological and religious sense
did not really exist (See Acts 10 for
an account of the breaking across this cultural boundary.)